Chapter 055, Formulary (American College of Laboratory Animal Medicine)

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European journal of political research: Finite elements in analysis and design: Folia phoniatrica et logopaedica: Fullerenes, nanotubes, and carbon nanostructures: IEEE engineering in medicine and biology magazine: IEEE geoscience and remote sensing letters: IEEE journal on selected areas in communications: IEEE microwave and wireless components letters: IEEE transactions on applied superconductivity: IEEE transactions on computer-aided design of integrated circuits and systems: IEEE transactions on dependable and secure computing: IEEE transactions on industrial electronics: IEEE transactions on information technology in biomedicine: IEEE transactions on information theory: IEEE transactions on intelligent transportation systems: IEEE transactions on neural systems and rehabilitation engineering: IEEE transactions on semiconductor manufacturing: Indian journal of chemistry.

Indian journal of physics and proceedings of the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science. Instruments and experimental techniques: International journal of applied ceramic technology: International journal of approximate reasoning: International journal of biometeorology: International journal of developmental neuroscience: International journal of distance education technologies: International journal of modern physics.

The board, at its discretion, may waive specific licensing prerequisites. The sample must be drawn from patients treated by the applicant during the 36 months preceding the date of application. The number of records shall be established by the board. The records shall be reasonably representative of the treatment typically provided by the applicant for each specialty area ;. The scope of practice must be defined by each national specialty board recognized by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation.

A person of good moral character who has graduated with a baccalaureate degree or a master's degree from a dental therapy education program that has been approved by the board or accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation or another board-approved national accreditation organization may apply for licensure. The applicant must submit an application and fee as prescribed by the board and a diploma or certificate from a dental therapy education program. Prior to being licensed, the applicant must pass a comprehensive, competency-based clinical examination that is approved by the board and administered independently of an institution providing dental therapy education.

The applicant must also pass an examination testing the applicant's knowledge of the Minnesota laws and rules relating to the practice of dentistry. An applicant who has failed the clinical examination twice is ineligible to retake the clinical examination until further education and training are obtained as specified by the board. An applicant who passes the examination in compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by professional ethical conduct requirements, and meets all the other requirements of the board shall be licensed as a dental therapist.

A person of good moral character, who has graduated from a dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association and established in an institution accredited by an agency recognized by the United States Department of Education to offer college-level programs, may apply for licensure. The dental hygiene program must provide a minimum of two academic years of dental hygiene education.

The applicant must submit an application and fee as prescribed by the board and a diploma or certificate of dental hygiene. Prior to being licensed, the applicant must pass the National Board of Dental Hygiene examination and a board approved examination designed to determine the applicant's clinical competency.

The applicant must also pass an examination testing the applicant's knowledge of the laws of Minnesota relating to the practice of dentistry and of the rules of the board. An applicant is ineligible to retake the clinical examination required by the board after failing it twice until further education and training are obtained as specified by board rule.

An applicant who passes the examination in compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by professional ethical conduct requirements, and meets all the other requirements of the board shall be licensed as a dental hygienist. A person of good moral character, who has graduated from a dental assisting program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association , may apply for licensure. The applicant must submit an application and fee as prescribed by the board and the diploma or certificate of dental assisting.

An applicant is ineligible to retake the licensure examination required by the board after failing it twice until further education and training are obtained as specified by board rule. An applicant who passes the examination in compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by professional ethical conduct requirements, and meets all the other requirements of the board shall be licensed as a dental assistant.

The postdoctoral program must be accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association , be of at least one year's duration, and include an outcome assessment evaluation assessing the resident's competence to practice dentistry. The board may require the applicant to submit any information deemed necessary by the board to determine whether the waiver is applicable.

The board may waive the clinical examination for an applicant who meets the requirements of this paragraph and has satisfactorily completed an accredited postdoctoral general dentistry residency program located outside of Minnesota. If licensure is denied, the board may notify the applicant of any specific remedy that the applicant could take which, when passed, would qualify the applicant for licensure. A denial does not prohibit the applicant from applying for licensure under subdivision 2a.

Along with the application fee, each of the following applicants shall submit a separate prorated initial license or permit fee. The prorated initial fee shall be established by the board based on the number of months of the applicant's initial term as described in Minnesota Rules, part Each applicant shall submit, with a request for issuance of a duplicate of the original license, or of an annual or biennial renewal certificate for a license or permit, a fee in the following amounts:.

Any licensed dentist, licensed dental therapist, public institution, or school authority may obtain services from a licensed dental hygienist. The licensed dental hygienist may provide those services defined in section A. The services provided shall not include the establishment of a final diagnosis or treatment plan for a dental patient.

All services shall be provided under supervision of a licensed dentist. Any licensed dentist who shall permit any dental service by a dental hygienist other than those authorized by the Board of Dentistry, shall be deemed to be violating the provisions of sections A. The dental hygienist may administer injections of local anesthetic agents or nitrous oxide inhalation analgesia as specifically delegated in the collaborative agreement with a licensed dentist.

The dentist need not first examine the patient or be present. If the patient is considered medically compromised, the collaborative dentist shall review the patient record, including the medical history, prior to the provision of these services. Collaborating dental hygienists may work with unlicensed and licensed dental assistants who may only perform duties for which licensure is not required. The performance of dental hygiene services in a health care facility, program, or nonprofit organization as authorized under this subdivision is limited to patients, students, and residents of the facility, program, or organization.

The board shall develop parameters and a process for obtaining authorization to collaborate with more than four dental hygienists. The collaborative agreement must include:. This procedure must specify where these records are to be located. The collaborative agreement must be signed and maintained by the dentist, the dental hygienist, and the facility, program, or organization; must be reviewed annually by the collaborating dentist and dental hygienist; and must be made available to the board upon request.

If the dental hygienist makes any referrals to the patient for further dental procedures, the dental hygienist must fill out a referral form and provide a copy of the form to the collaborating dentist. The services authorized under this subdivision and the collaborative agreement may be performed without the presence of a licensed dentist and may be performed at a location other than the usual place of practice of the dentist or dental hygienist and without a dentist's diagnosis and treatment plan, unless specified in the collaborative agreement.

Every licensed dentist and dental therapist who uses the services of any unlicensed person for the purpose of assistance in the practice of dentistry or dental therapy shall be responsible for the acts of such unlicensed person while engaged in such assistance. The dentist or dental therapist shall permit the unlicensed assistant to perform only those acts which are authorized to be delegated to unlicensed assistants by the Board of Dentistry. The acts shall be performed under supervision of a licensed dentist or dental therapist.

A licensed dental therapist shall not supervise more than four registered licensed or unlicensed dental assistants at any one practice setting. The board may permit differing levels of dental assistance based upon recognized educational standards, approved by the board, for the training of dental assistants.

The board may also define by rule the scope of practice of licensed and unlicensed dental assistants. The board by rule may require continuing education for differing levels of dental assistants, as a condition to their license or authority to perform their authorized duties. Any licensed dentist or dental therapist who permits an unlicensed assistant to perform any dental service other than that authorized by the board shall be deemed to be enabling an unlicensed person to practice dentistry, and commission of such an act by an unlicensed assistant shall constitute a violation of sections A.

Every licensed dentist and dental therapist who uses the services of any unlicensed person, other than under the dentist's or dental therapist's supervision and within the same practice setting, for the purpose of constructing, altering, repairing or duplicating any denture, partial denture, crown, bridge, splint, orthodontic, prosthetic or other dental appliance, shall be required to furnish such unlicensed person with a written work order in such form as shall be prescribed by the rules of the board.

The work order shall be made in duplicate form, a duplicate copy to be retained in a permanent file of the dentist or dental therapist at the practice setting for a period of two years, and the original to be retained in a permanent file for a period of two years by the unlicensed person in that person's place of business.

The permanent file of work orders to be kept by the dentist, dental therapist, or unlicensed person shall be open to inspection at any reasonable time by the board or its duly constituted agent. The board shall issue a license to practice podiatric medicine to a person who meets the following requirements:. The passing score for each part of the national board examinations, parts one and two, is as defined by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners. The board may establish as internal operating procedures the procedures or requirements for the applicant's personal presentation.

The fee shall not be refunded. If the applicant does not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph, the board may refuse to issue a license unless it determines that the public will be protected through issuance of a license with conditions and limitations the board considers appropriate. No more than two reexaminations are allowed without a new application for a license. A podiatrist seeking licensure or reinstatement of a license after a lapse of continuous practice of podiatric medicine of greater than two years must reestablish competency by completing a reentry program approved by the board.

The board shall issue a license to practice podiatric medicine to any person currently or formerly licensed to practice podiatric medicine in another state who satisfies the requirements of this section:. If the license has been inactive for more than two years, the amount of acceptable continuing education required must be obtained during the two years immediately before application or the applicant must provide other evidence as the board may reasonably require. Upon payment of a fee and in accordance with the rules of the board, the board may issue a temporary permit to practice podiatric medicine to a podiatrist engaged in a clinical residency or preceptorship for a period not to exceed 12 months.

A temporary permit may be extended under the following conditions: The temporary permit is renewed annually until the residency training requirements are completed or until the residency program is terminated or discontinued. All continuing education hours must be earned by verified attendance at or participation in a program or course sponsored by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education or approved by the board. In each two-year cycle, a maximum of eight hours of continuing education credits may be obtained through participation in online courses.

The suspension shall take effect upon written notice to the regulated person and shall specify the reason for the suspension. The regulated person shall be provided with at least ten days' notice of any hearing held pursuant to this subdivision. The hearing shall be scheduled to begin no later than 30 days after issuance of the suspension order. Members who, as a result of time spent attending board meetings, incur child care expenses that would not otherwise have been incurred, may be reimbursed for those expenses upon board authorization. However, a state or political subdivision employee may receive the daily payment if the employee uses vacation time or compensatory time accumulated in accordance with a collective bargaining agreement or compensation plan for board activity.

Members who are state employees or employees of the political subdivisions of the state may receive the expenses provided for in this subdivision unless the expenses are reimbursed by another source. Members who are state employees or employees of political subdivisions of the state may be reimbursed for child care expenses only for time spent on board activities that are outside their working hours.

The boards shall receive and resolve complaints or other communications, whether oral or written, against regulated persons. Before resolving an oral complaint, the executive director or a board member designated by the board to review complaints shall require the complainant to state the complaint in writing or authorize transcribing the complaint.

The executive director or the designated board member shall determine whether the complaint alleges or implies a violation of a statute or rule which the board is empowered to enforce. The executive director or the designated board member may consult with the designee of the attorney general as to a board's jurisdiction over a complaint. If the executive director or the designated board member determines that it is necessary, the executive director may seek additional information to determine whether the complaint is jurisdictional or to clarify the nature of the allegations by obtaining records or other written material, obtaining a handwriting sample from the regulated person, clarifying the alleged facts with the complainant, and requesting a written response from the subject of the complaint.

The executive director may authorize a field investigation to clarify the nature of the allegations and the facts that led to the complaint. The executive director shall forward to another governmental agency any complaints received by the board which do not relate to the board's jurisdiction but which relate to matters within the jurisdiction of another governmental agency.

The agency shall advise the executive director of the disposition of the complaint.

Minnesota House of Representatives

A complaint or other information received by another governmental agency relating to a statute or rule which a board is empowered to enforce must be forwarded to the executive director of the board to be processed in accordance with this section. Governmental agencies may shall coordinate and conduct joint investigations of complaints that involve more than one governmental agency.

The health-related licensing boards shall include information regarding the health professionals services program on their Web sites. This section is effective July 1, , and sunsets July 1, Two or more of the health-related licensing boards listed in section The program does not affect a board's authority to discipline violations of a board's practice act. For purposes of sections Upon receiving a report from the program manager in accordance with section The board must complete the disciplinary investigation within 30 days of receipt of the report from the program. If the investigation is not completed by the board within 30 days, the temporary suspension shall be lifted, unless the regulated person requests a delay in the disciplinary proceedings for any reason, upon which the temporary suspension shall remain in place until the completion of the investigation.

The program manager shall report to the appropriate participating board a regulated person who 10 is alleged to have committed violations of the person's practice act that are outside the authority of the health professionals services program as described in sections This section is effective August 1, , and applies to violations that occur after the effective date.

Each health-related licensing board, including the Emergency Medical Services Regulatory Board under chapter E, shall consider it grounds for disciplinary action if a regulated person violates the terms of the health professionals services program participation agreement or leaves the program except upon fulfilling the terms for successful completion of the program as set forth in the participation agreement. This chapter also shall not apply to eligibility for juvenile corrections employment, where the offense involved child physical or sexual abuse or criminal sexual conduct. Paragraph a is effective July 1, Unless the language or context clearly indicates that a different meaning is intended, the following words, terms, and phrases, for the purposes of this chapter, shall be given the meanings subjoined to them.

The term "Pharmacist" means an individual with a currently valid license issued by the Board of Pharmacy to practice pharmacy. The term "Drug" means all medicinal substances and preparations recognized by the United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary, or any revision thereof, vaccines and biologicals, and all substances and preparations intended for external and internal use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or other animals, and all substances and preparations, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the bodies of humans or other animals.

The term drug shall also mean any compound, substance, or derivative that is not approved for human consumption by the United States Food and Drug Administration or specifically permitted for human consumption under Minnesota law, and, when introduced into the body, induces an effect similar to that of a Schedule I or Schedule II controlled substance listed in section The term "Medicine" means any remedial agent that has the property of curing, preventing, treating, or mitigating diseases, or that is used for that purpose. The term "Poisons" means any substance which that , when introduced into the system, directly or by absorption, produces violent, morbid, or fatal changes, or which that destroys living tissue with which it comes in contact.

The term "Chemical" means all medicinal or industrial substances, whether simple or compound, or obtained through the process of the science and art of chemistry, whether of organic or inorganic origin. The term "Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, company, corporation, trustee, association, agency, or other public or private entity. The term "Wholesale" means and includes any sale for the purpose of resale.

The phrase "Commercial purposes" means the ordinary purposes of trade, agriculture, industry, and commerce, exclusive of the practices of medicine and , pharmacy , and other health care professions. The term "Manufacturing" except in the case of bulk compounding, prepackaging or extemporaneous compounding within a pharmacy, means and includes the production, quality control and standardization by mechanical, physical, chemical, or pharmaceutical means, packing, repacking, tableting, encapsulating, labeling, relabeling, filling or by any other process, of all drugs, medicines, chemicals, or poisons, without exception, for medicinal purposes.

Manufacturing includes the packaging or repackaging of a drug, or the labeling or relabeling of the container of a drug, for resale by pharmacies, practitioners, or other persons. Manufacturing does not include the prepackaging, extemporaneous compounding, or anticipatory compounding of a drug within a licensed pharmacy or by a practitioner, nor the labeling of a container within a pharmacy or by a practitioner for the purpose of dispensing a drug to a patient pursuant to a valid prescription.

The term "Pharmacist intern" means 1 a natural person satisfactorily progressing toward the degree in pharmacy required for licensure, or 2 a graduate of the University of Minnesota College of Pharmacy, or other pharmacy college approved by the board, who is registered by the State Board of Pharmacy for the purpose of obtaining practical experience as a requirement for licensure as a pharmacist, or 3 a qualified applicant awaiting examination for licensure. The term "Pharmacy technician" means a person not licensed as a pharmacist or a pharmacist intern, who assists the pharmacist in the preparation and dispensing of medications by performing computer entry of prescription data and other manipulative tasks.

A pharmacy technician shall not perform tasks specifically reserved to a licensed pharmacist or requiring professional judgment. The term "Prescription drug order " means a signed lawful written order, or an , oral , or electronic order reduced to writing, given by of a practitioner licensed to prescribe drugs for patients in the course of the practitioner's practice, issued for an individual patient and containing the following: Prescription drug orders for controlled substances must be prepared in accordance with the provisions of section To be valid, a prescription must be issued for an individual patient by a practitioner within the scope and usual course of the practitioner's practice, and must contain the date of issue, name and address of the patient, name and quantity of the drug prescribed, directions for use, the name and address of the practitioner, and a telephone number at which the practitioner can be reached.

A prescription written or printed on paper that is given to the patient or an agent of the patient or that is transmitted by fax must contain the practitioner's manual signature. An electronic prescription must contain the practitioner's electronic signature. The chart order shall contain the name of the patient, another patient identifier such as birth date or medical record number, the drug ordered, and any directions that the practitioner may prescribe concerning strength, dosage, frequency, and route of administration.

The manual or electronic signature of the practitioner must be affixed to the chart order at the time it is written or at a later date in the case of verbal chart orders. Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription. Any word, statement, or other information appearing required by or under the authority of this chapter to appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also appears appear on the outside container or wrapper, if any there be, of the retail package of such drug or medicine, or is be easily legible through the outside container or wrapper.

A the name, dose, and route of each vaccine that may be given;. B the patient population for whom the vaccine may be given;. C contraindications and precautions to the vaccine;. D the procedure for handling an adverse reaction;. E the name, signature, and address of the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse;. F a telephone number at which the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse can be contacted; and. G the date and time period for which the protocol is valid;.

Any significant changes in drug therapy made pursuant to a protocol or collaborative practice agreement must be reported documented by the pharmacist to in the patient's medical record or reported by the pharmacist to a practitioner responsible for the patient's care ;. Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.

Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription. Compounding also includes anticipatory compounding, as defined in this section, and the preparation of drugs in which all bulk drug substances and components are nonprescription substances. Compounding does not include mixing or reconstituting a drug according to the product's labeling or to the manufacturer's directions. Compounding does not include the preparation of a drug for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis, provided that the drug is not prepared for dispensing or administration to patients.

All compounding, regardless of the type of product, must be done pursuant to a prescription drug order unless otherwise permitted in this chapter or by the rules of the board. Compounding does not include a minor deviation from such directions with regard to radioactivity, volume, or stability, which is made by or under the supervision of a licensed nuclear pharmacist or a physician, and which is necessary in order to accommodate circumstances not contemplated in the manufacturer's instructions, such as the rate of radioactive decay or geographical distance from the patient.

In the case of practitioners only, anticipatory compounding means the preparation of a supply of a compounded drug product that is sufficient to meet the practitioner's short-term anticipated need for dispensing or administering the drug to patients treated by the practitioner. Anticipatory compounding is not the preparation of a compounded drug product for wholesale distribution. Extemporaneous compounding is not the preparation of a compounded drug product for wholesale distribution.

The Board of Pharmacy shall have the power and it shall be its duty:. A a copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty for a felony in violation of section B a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for violating an injunction issued under section C a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under section D a finding by the board that the person violated section The board shall investigate any complaint of a violation of section In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the board may, without a hearing, temporarily suspend a license for not more than 60 days if the board finds that a pharmacist has violated a statute or rule that the board is empowered to enforce and continued practice by the pharmacist would create an imminent risk of harm to others.

The suspension shall take effect upon written notice to the pharmacist, specifying the statute or rule violated. At the time it issues the suspension notice, the board shall schedule a disciplinary hearing to be held under the Administrative Procedure Act. The pharmacist shall be provided with at least 20 days' notice of any hearing held under this subdivision.

For the purposes aforesaid, it shall be the duty of the board to make and publish uniform rules not inconsistent herewith for carrying out and enforcing the provisions of this chapter. The board shall adopt rules regarding prospective drug utilization review and patient counseling by pharmacists. A pharmacist in the exercise of the pharmacist's professional judgment, upon the presentation of a new prescription by a patient or the patient's caregiver or agent, shall perform the prospective drug utilization review required by rules issued under this subdivision.

If the United States Food and Drug Administration FDA determines that the substitution of drugs used for the treatment of epilepsy or seizures poses a health risk to patients, the board shall adopt rules in accordance with accompanying FDA interchangeability standards regarding the use of substitution for these drugs.

Office of the Revisor of Statutes

If the board adopts a rule regarding the substitution of drugs used for the treatment of epilepsy or seizures that conflicts with the substitution requirements of section If the rule proposed by the board would increase state costs for state public health care programs, the board shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate Health and Human Services Budget Division and the house of representatives Health Care and Human Services Finance Division the proposed rule and the increased cost associated with the proposed rule before the board may adopt the rule.

It shall be grounds for disciplinary action by the Board of Pharmacy against the registration of the pharmacy if the Board of Pharmacy determines that any person with supervisory responsibilities at the pharmacy sets policies that prevent a licensed pharmacist from providing drug utilization review and patient counseling as required by rules adopted under subdivision 1.

The Board of Pharmacy shall follow the requirements of chapter 14 in any disciplinary actions taken under this section. A hearing must be held not later than ten days after the request for the hearing is received by the board. After the completion of the hearing, the administrative law judge shall issue a report within ten days. Within 15 days after receiving the report of the administrative law judge, the board shall issue a further order vacating or making permanent the cease and desist order.

The time periods provided in this provision may be waived by agreement of the executive director of the board and the person against whom the cease and desist order was issued. If the person to whom a cease and desist order is issued fails to appear at the hearing after being duly notified, the person is in default, and the proceeding may be determined against that person upon consideration of the cease and desist order, the allegations of which may be considered to be true. Unless otherwise provided, all hearings must be conducted according to chapter The board may adopt rules of procedure concerning all proceedings conducted under this subdivision.

The administrative proceeding provided by this subdivision, and subsequent appellate judicial review of that administrative proceeding, constitutes the exclusive remedy for determining whether the board properly issued the cease and desist order and whether the cease and desist order should be vacated or made permanent. Whenever the board under subdivision 1a seeks to enforce compliance with a cease and desist order when a hearing or hearing request on the cease and desist order is pending, or the time has not yet expired to request a hearing on whether a cease and desist order should be vacated or made permanent, the allegations in the cease and desist order are considered conclusively established for the purposes of proceeding under subdivision 1a for temporary relief to enforce the cease and desist order.

The court shall determine whether to issue such an injunction based on traditional principles of temporary relief. In the case of a facility licensed or registered by the board, the provisions of subdivision 1 shall apply to an individual owner or sole proprietor and shall also apply to the following:. The board shall comply with the provisions of chapter 14, before it fails to issue, renew, suspends, or revokes any license or registration issued under this chapter.

Any license or registration which has been suspended or revoked may be reinstated by the board provided the holder thereof shall pay all costs of the proceedings resulting in the suspension or revocation, and, in addition thereto, pay a fee set by the board. Subdivisions 1a and 1b are effective August 1, , and apply to violations occurring on or after that date.

When the board finds that a licensee, registrant, or applicant has engaged in conduct prohibited under subdivision 2, it may do one or more of the following: The following conduct is prohibited and is grounds for disciplinary action: The burden of proof is on the applicant to demonstrate such qualifications or satisfaction of such requirements;. Conduct that subverts or attempts to subvert the licensing examination process includes, but is not limited to: Conviction as used in this subdivision includes a conviction of an offense that if committed in this state would be deemed a felony without regard to its designation elsewhere, or a criminal proceeding where a finding or verdict of guilt is made or returned but the adjudication of guilt is either withheld or not entered thereon.

The board may delay the issuance of a new license or registration if the applicant has been charged with a felony until the matter has been adjudicated;. The board may delay the issuance of a new license or registration if the owner or applicant has been charged with a felony until the matter has been adjudicated;. The board may delay the issuance of a registration if the applicant has been charged with a felony until the matter has been adjudicated;. The board may delay the issuance of a new license or registration if an investigation or disciplinary action is pending in another state or jurisdiction until the investigation or action has been dismissed or otherwise resolved; and.

A worksheet for allometric dose and interval scaling is Sponsored by the American College of Laboratory Animal Medicine, this pocket-book provides dosages of analgesics, anaesthetics, antiinfective agents, parasiticides and other drugs drugs Subject Category: Chemicals and Chemical Groups see more details for all the laboratory animals laboratory animals Subject Category: Organism Groups see more details. A worksheet for allometric dose and interval scaling is provided. Buy Instant Access You are not logged in. Please sign in to access your subscribed products.

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